# $\sin(x)$ infinite product formula: how did Euler prove it?

I know that $\sin(x)$ can be expressed as an infinite product, and I've seen proofs of it (e.g. Infinite product of sine function). I found How was Euler able to create an infinite product for sinc by using its roots? which discusses how Euler might have found the equation, but I wonder how Euler could have proved it.

$$\sin(x) = x\prod_{n=1}^\infty \left(1-\frac{x^2}{n^2\pi^2}\right)$$

So how did Euler derive this? I've seen a proof that requires Fourier series (something not know [formally] by Euler, I guess). I also know that this equation can be thought intuitively, and it's really true that it will have the same roots as the sine function, however it's not clear that the entire function converges to the sine function. So, even if Euler guessed it, how was his proof accepted, for this formula to calculate the zeta function for even integers?

$$\zeta(2n) = (-1)^{n+1} \frac{B_{2n}(2\pi )^{2n}}{2(2n)!}$$

I've checked a proof of this result, and it requires the sine infinite product.

Also, the Basel problem (solved by him) used this infinite product too, and he got famous by this proof, so the sine infinite product might have been accepted by the mathematical community at that time.