Let $(X,\mathcal{E},\mu)$ be a measure space. Let $u,v$ be $\mu$-measurable functions. If $0 \leq u \leq v$ and $\int_X v d\mu$ exists we know that $\int_X u d\mu \leq \int_X v d\mu$.
I wanted to know if $0 \leq u < v$ and $\int_X v d\mu$ exists then is it true that $\int_X u d\mu < \int_X v d\mu$? This can be shown for simple functions easily i.e. if $u,v$ are simple.
I have assumed here that $\int_X u d\mu = \sup \{\int_X u_n d\mu, u_n \text{simple}, \mu-\text{measurable}, u_n \leq u\}$ where a simple function is defined to be a function whose cardinality of the range is finite.
Any help is greatly appreciated.
Thanks, Phanindra