How do you show that an $L^p$ entire (holomorphic on the complex plane) function is $0$? Just to clarify, I want to show that:
If $f$ is entire and $\int_{\mathbb{C}} |f|^p dxdy <\infty$, then $f=0$.
I think I can show that this is the case for $p=2$, but I'm not sure about other values of $p$...
 A: Use Hölder's inequality and Cauchy's integral formula to show the function and its derivatives all vanishes at zero.
A: $\newcommand\RR{\mathbb{R}}$
$\newcommand\NN{\mathbb{N}}$
$\newcommand\e{\varepsilon}$
$\newcommand\lbg{\lambda}$
If $f: \RR \to \RR$ is an analytic unbounded Lebesgue integrable function, then it must in particular satisfy this property (because it is continuous):
\[
   \forall \e,M > 0 \; \exists x_0 : |x| > |x_0| \Rightarrow
   \lbg(\{x \in \RR : |f(x)| > M\}) < \e,
\]
where $\lbg$ is the usual Lebesgue measure. 
Then you just use that $f$ is analytic iff $\forall \text{ compact } K \subset \RR \; \exists C > 0 : x \in K, n \in \NN \Rightarrow \left\vert\frac{\partial^n f}{\partial x^n}(x)\right\vert 
\leq C^{n+1}n!$
But it is easy to see that this is impossible since $|f'|$ will have to be arbitrarily large - or in other words that you can go far enough out to the right on the x-axis that $|f|$ has to go from being larger than some big $M$ to smaller than some small $m$ on a very small interval.
This is missing quite a few details, but it should be pretty easy to fill out.
A: Right! Thank you, I didn't think about using Hölder's.
In short, 
\begin{equation}
|f(0)| = \left|\int_{|z|=R} \frac{f(z)dz}{z} \right| <  \left(\int_{|z|=R} |f(z)|^p |dz|\right)^{1/p} \left(\int_{|z|=R} |z|^{-q} |dz|\right)^{1/q}
\end{equation}
And $\left(\int_{|z|=R} |z|^{-q} |dz|\right)^{1/q} = R^{-1+1/q} (2\pi)^{1/q} = R^{-1/p} (2\pi)^{1/q}$ 
\begin{equation}
\int_0^\infty \left((2\pi)^{1/q} |f(0)| R^{1/p}\right)^p dR < || f ||_p^p <\infty
\end{equation}
And the only way for this to fly is for $f(0)=0$, for $p\le 1$.
