This is a basic question, but I haven't done abstract algebra in a while and not certain of the answer.
We say that an $R$-algebra $A$ is finitely generated if there exist $a_1, \dots, a_n$ such that $A=R[a_1,\dots, a_n]$. I want to prove that an $R$-algebra $A$ is finitely generated iff it is isomorphic to the quotient ring $R[x_1,\dots,x_n]/I$.
Assume $A$ is finitely generated by $a_1,\dots,a_n$. We can define a unique algebra homomorphism $f\colon R[x_1,\dots,x_n] \to A$ in the usual way (apply the homomorphism $h$ from $R$ to $A$ to the coefficients, and change $x_i$ to $a_i$). The image of $f$ is $R[a_1,\dots,a_n]$. By one of the isomorphism theorems, we conclude that $A$ is isomorphic to $R[x_1,\dots,x_n]/I$ where $I$ is the kernel of $f$.
I now struggle with the other direction. I found a proof online that says given $A$ is isomorphic to $R[x_1,\dots,x_n]/I$ by a map $g$, we can conclude that there exists a surjective ring homomorphism $f\colon R[x_1,\dots,x_n]\to A$. Am I right to understand that this homomorphism is given by applying $g$ to elements of $R[x_1,\dots,x_n]$ which are not in $I$ and mapping elements in $I$ to zero?
Now since $R[x_1,\dots,x_n]$ is generated by $x_1,\dots,x_n$, $A$ will be generated by $f(x_1),\dots,f(x_n)$. I don't have an intuitive understanding of why this is true either.