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We know that a 1d dirac function "extracts" the function of an integral, but what about for nd?

$$\int \cdots \int f(x_1, \cdots, x_n) \prod_{i=1}^{n} \delta(x - x_i) dx_i$$

is this equal to $f(x,\cdots,x)$?

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  • $\begingroup$ Yes. That's correct. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 7, 2014 at 1:56

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The delta measure works identically in any number of dimensions.

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