I admit this is an homework. However i'm quite unused to this kind of argument so i would like to receive a suggestion or a confirm about my guesses.. So..
Let $X$ be a separable Banach space with dual $X^*$. Let $B=\{x\in X:\|x\|\leq 1\}$ and let $(x_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ be a sequence dense in $B$. Setting $B^*=\{T\in X^*:\|T\|_{X^*}\leq 1\}$, let $d:B^*\times B^*\to\mathbb R$ be the distance defined by: $$d(S,T)=\sum_{n=1}^{+\infty}\;2^{-n}|S(x_n)-T(x_n)|,\qquad S,T\in B^*.$$
Prove that
$d(T_n,T)\to 0$ if and only if $T_n\to T$ pointwise in B;
$(B^*,d)$ is a metric and compact space.
Now my questions.. I can solve the implication $d(T_n,T)\to 0\Rightarrow T_n\to T$ pointwise, but what about the reverse implication? I was trying to find some uniform estimates on the norm $\|T_n-T\|$, maybe relying on Banach-Steinhaus theorem but I'm not sure whether it is possible to apply in this situation.
And for part 2. I can show that $d$ is a metric, but to conclude that $B^*$ is compact i was wondering if it were just a consequence of Banach Alaoglu or there is something more.
Last but not Least.. In my reflections it doesn't sound relevant the hypothesis of $X$ being separable. Was it used implicitly to assure the existence of a sequence $(x_n)_{n\in \mathbb N}$ dense in $B$ or am I missing something?
Thanks in advance to anybody who will answer or just share with me his thoughts.