Not sure if anyone is interested in another solution after all those years, but anyway: I managed to evaluate the integral in a slightly different manner that doesn't depend on me coming up with a cleverly constructed function to integrate. However, cleverness is needed elsewhere in the process, so it's not much simpler than the other two solutions.
Define $\displaystyle f(z) = \frac{\mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i}\pi z^2}}{\sinh^2 \pi z}$ and consider the two contours shown on the following sketch:

$f(z)$ has poles in all $\mathrm{i}n$ for $n \in \mathbb Z$; some of them are shown with red asterisks. Here the two rectangles extend to $\pm\infty$ on the sides, the little circles around the poles have radius $r > 0$ and the three horizontal lines are exactly the same, just shifted by $\pm \mathrm{i}$.
The residue of $f(z)$ in zero is obviously zero, because the Laurent series will contain only even powers. To calculate the residue in $z = \mathrm i$, write $w = z-\mathrm i$ and consider the fact that $\sinh^2 z$ is $\mathrm{i}$-periodic to obtain
$$ \frac{\mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i} \pi (w^2 + 2\mathrm{i} w - 1)}}{\sinh^2 \pi w} = - \frac{1}{\pi^2 w^2} \frac{\mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i} \pi w^2}}{(1 + \text{even powers of $w$})^2} (1 - 2\pi w + \cdots)$$
The only way to get the minus first power is to take the $-2\pi w$ in the last parentheses and 1's in the expansions of the other two functions. Hence the residue is $2/\pi$.
Now denote $\displaystyle I = \int_K f(x)\,\mathrm{d} x$, where $K$ is the horizontal line with a little circle around 0. Writing the residue theorem for the top and the bottom contour on the sketch, we get
$$\begin{align*}
\int_K f(x)\,\mathrm{d} x - \int_K f(x+\mathrm{i})\,\mathrm{d} x &= 2\pi\mathrm{i} \times \frac{2}{\pi}
&\implies&&
\int_K \frac{\mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i} \pi x^2} \mathrm{e}^{-2\pi x}}{\sinh^2 \pi x}\,\mathrm{d} x &= 4\mathrm{i} - I \\
\int_K f(x)\,\mathrm{d} x - \int_K f(x-\mathrm{i})\,\mathrm{d} x &= 0
&\implies&&
\int_K \frac{\mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i} \pi x^2} \mathrm{e}^{2\pi x}}{\sinh^2 \pi x}\,\mathrm{d} x &= - I \\
\end{align*}$$
Add the two equations together and subtract $\displaystyle 2 \int_K \frac{\mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i}\pi x^2}}{\sinh^2 \pi x}\,\mathrm{d} x = 2I$ to get
$$ \int_K \frac{\mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i} \pi x^2} (\mathrm{e}^{2\pi x} - 2 + \mathrm{e}^{-2\pi x})}{\sinh^2 \pi x}\,\mathrm{d} x = 4\mathrm{i} - 4I. $$
However, $\sinh^2 \pi x = \frac14 (\mathrm{e}^{\pi x} - \mathrm{e}^{-\pi x})^2$, so the parenthesis in the numerator is $4\sinh^2 \pi x$. The sinh's cancel and we get $4 \int_K \mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i} \pi x^2}\,\mathrm{d} x = 4\mathrm{i} - 4I$.
Taking the imaginary part of the last equality, sending $r \to 0$ to get rid of the small circle around the pole in $0$ (we couldn't do this earlier because the real part of the integral over the little circle actually diverges; however, the residue is 0, so, once we get rid of the divergence, there will be no contribution) and dividing by 8, we get
$$ \frac12 \int_{-\infty}^\infty \sin \pi x^2\,\mathrm{d} x = \frac12 - \frac12 \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\sin \pi x^2}{\sinh^2 \pi x}\,\mathrm{d} x. $$
Both integrands are even, so we can write $\int_{-\infty}^\infty = 2 \int_0^\infty$. The integral on the left is one of the well-known Fresnel integrals and it is equal to $\frac{1}{2\sqrt2}$, so we truly obtain the result
$$\int_0^\infty \frac{\sin \pi x^2}{\sinh^2 \pi x}\,\mathrm{d}{x} = \frac12 - \frac{1}{2\sqrt2} = \frac{2-\sqrt2}{4}.$$