Let $X$ be a compact metric space. Let $C(X)$ denote the space of real-valued continuous functions on $X$. A commonly given corollary to the Arzela-Ascoli theorem is:
Proposition: If $f_n$ is an equicontinuous sequence in $C(X)$ converging pointwise to $f \in C(X)$, then actually $f_n \to f$ uniformly.
In order to prove this, I first proved a simple lemma
Lemma: Suppose $x$ is a point and $S$ is a sequence in a compact metric space $M$. If every convergent subsequence of $S$ converges to $x$, then $S$ converges to $x$.
Proof: Suppose for contradiction that $S$ does not converge to $x$. Then, there is a subsequence $S'$ of $S$ whose terms are bounded away from $x$. Being a sequence in a compact metric space, $S'$ has a convergent subsequence $S''$. Since $S''$ is a convergent subsequence of $S$, it converges to $x$ by hypothesis. But, this is impossible since the terms of $S'$ should be bounded away from $x$.
which is applied as follows.
Proof of proposition: Let $M$ be the uniform closure of $\{f_n : n \in \mathbb{N} \} \cup \{f\}$. By the Arzela-Ascoli, $M$ is compact for the uniform norm. Consider now $f_n$ as a sequence in $M$. Any subsequence of $f_n$ which converges uniformly must converge to $f$ (since $f_n \to f$ pointwise). So, by the lemma, $f_n \to f$ uniformly.
What I am slightly unsure of is whether these arguments carry over, mutatis mutandis, for nets?
Question: If $X$ is a compact metric space, $C(X)$ is the space of real-valued continuous functions on $X$, and $f_i$ is an equicontinuous net in $C(X)$ converging pointwise to $f \in C(X)$, does $f_i \to f$ uniformly?
I think the answer is yes, but I am not totally comfortable with the concept of a subnet, so it is difficult to be certain.
Edit: Thinking about it more, it seems the point requiring clarification is the following one.
Claim: If a net $(x_i)_{i \in I}$ in a metric space $M$ does not converge to a point $x \in M$, then there is a subnet that is bounded away from $x$. That is, there is an $\epsilon > 0$ and a cofinal, increasing function $\varphi : J \to I$ out of a directed set $J$ such that $d( x_{\varphi(j)}, x) \geq \epsilon$ for all $j \in J$.
Since $(x_i)$ does not converge to $x$ above, we know there exists an $\epsilon >0$ such that, for all $i_0 \in I$, there exists $i \geq i_0$ with $d(x_i,x) \geq \epsilon$. To find a subnet, it seems the obvious thing to do is try $J = \{ i \in I : d(x_i,x) \geq \epsilon\}$ and $\varphi$ the inclusion. Now, the above condition says exactly that $J$ is cofinal in $I$. And, obviously the inclusion map is increasing... so I guess that settles things?
Edit 2:
I guess in my first edit I forgot to verify that $J$ was, itself, a directed set. But it seems a cofinal set $J$ in a directed set $I$ is automatically a directed set. Any finite subset of $J$ has an upper bound in $I$, which has then an upper bound in $J$.