let $a,b,c\in \mathbb{R}$, if such
$$\dfrac{1}{bc-a^2}+\dfrac{1}{ca-b^2}+\dfrac{1}{ab-c^2}=0$$ show that $$\dfrac{a}{(bc-a^2)^2}+\dfrac{b}{(ca-b^2)^2}+\dfrac{c}{(ab-c^2)^2}=0$$
Does this problem has nice methods?
My idea:let $$(ca-b^2)(ab-c^2)+(bc-a^2)(ab-c^2)+(bc-a^2)(ca-b^2)=0$$ then I can't. Thanks