Once upon a time I proved that there is no functorial 'association' $$F:\ \mathbf{Grp}\ \longrightarrow\ \mathbf{Grp}:\ G\ \longmapsto\ \operatorname{Aut}(G).$$ A few days ago I casually mentioned this to someone, and was asked for a proof. Unfortunately I could not and still can not recall how I proved it. Here is how much of my proof I do recall:
Suppose such a functor does exist. Choose some group $G$ wisely, and let $f\in\operatorname{Hom}(V_4,G)$ and $g\in\operatorname{Hom}(G,V_4)$ be such that $g\circ f=\operatorname{id}_{V_4}$. Then, because $F$ is a co- or contravariant functor we have $$F(g)\circ F(f)=F(g\circ f)=F(\operatorname{id}_{V_4})=\operatorname{id}_{\operatorname{Aut}(V_4)},$$ or $$F(f)\circ F(g)=F(g\circ f)=F(\operatorname{id}_{V_4})=\operatorname{id}_{\operatorname{Aut}(V_4)},$$ where $\operatorname{Aut}(V_4)\cong S_3$. In particular $\operatorname{Aut}(G)$ contains a subgroup isomorphic to $S_3$. Then something about the order of $\operatorname{Aut}(G)$ leads to a contradiction.
I cannot for the life of me find which goup $G$ would do the trick. Any ideas?