I don't believe there are any counter examples that can be used for this (I think it is true). Could someone help me prove it?
I understand why it's true (if I was right about that), but the proof itself is a bit tricky.
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Sign up to join this communityOn one hand, and since everything's positive here, $\;gcd(a,b)\le a,b\;$ , but on the other $\;a\mid a\;\;and\;\;a\mid b\;$ , so
$$a\le gcd(a,b)\le a\implies gcd(a,b)=a$$
If $a|b$, then there is some integer $n$ such that $b = na$. Now the Euclidian algorithm says that $$ \gcd(a, b) = \gcd(a, na) = \gcd(a, na - na) = \gcd(a, 0) = a $$
Hint: Use the fact that
$gcd(a,b)=d$ iff $gcd(\frac{a}{d},\frac{b}{d})=1$.
Note: This result can be proved using the theorem that states that gcd can be expressed as a linear combination of the numbers.
Suppose that $a,b>0$ and $a|b$.
This is the usual definition of gcd.