Consider $f_n(x) = x^n$ on the interval $[0, 1]$.
This converges pointwise to $$f = \begin{cases} 0, & \mbox{if } 0 \le x < 1\ \\ 1, & \mbox{if } x = 1 \end{cases}$$
Now I know $f_n(x)$ doesn't converge uniformly to $f$ but does it converge almost uniformly?
For any $\delta > 0$ we can can take the subset $(1 - \epsilon, 1]$ of $[0, 1]$ such that $\epsilon < \delta$. Then as the measure of this subset is $\epsilon < \delta$ and $f_n(x)$ converges to $f$ on the complement of this subset we have almost uniform convergence.
Is my understanding correct here?