Edit: I shall try to reformulate my question in order to make it -hopefully- more clear.
Let $X$ be a random variable that follows the $n$-dimensional Gaussian distribution. The probability density of $X$ is given by the following function:
$$ f_X(\mathbf{x;\mathbf{\mu}, \Sigma}) = \frac{1}{(2\pi)^{n/2}|\Sigma|^{1/2}} exp\{ -\frac{1}{2} (\mathbf{x}-\mathbf{\mu})^T \Sigma^{-1} (\mathbf{x}-\mathbf{\mu}) \}, $$
where $\mathbf{x},\mathbf{\mu}\in\Re^n$ and $\Sigma \in S_{++}^{n}$.
In addition, let $\mathcal{H}: \mathbf{x}^T\mathbf{w}=0$ be a hyperplane in the $n$-dimensional Euclidean space $\Re^n$, where $\mathbf{w}\in\Re^n$ and $b\in\Re$. The hyperplane $\mathcal{H}$ defines two half-spaces:
$$ \Omega_{+} = \{\mathbf{x} \in \Re^n | \mathbf{x}^T\mathbf{w}+b \geq 0 \}\\ \Omega_{-} = \{\mathbf{x} \in \Re^n | \mathbf{x}^T\mathbf{w}+b < 0 \} $$
What I would like to find out is what's happening when I try to integrate the above gaussian pdf over the region $\Omega_{+}$ (or $\Omega_{-}$), as it's well-known that -by definition- integrating over the whole $\Re^n$ gives 1. This is the spirit! And this is the reason of the existence if the (normalisation) term $\frac{1}{(2\pi)^{n/2}|\Sigma|^{1/2}}$.
Please correct me if I am wrong in something above.
Next, we could observe that if $b=0$, i.e., the hyperplane crosses the origin, then - due to the symmetry of the gaussian pdf - the integral should be equal to $1/2$. But how can I compute the value of the integral when $b\neq0$? Is there some clever trick to compute how the gaussian integral changes with respect to the bias term $b$?
Thanks in advance and apologies for being kinda "newbie" or not strict enough!... Every correction or helpful comment (either on my question or my notation) would be extremely appreciated!