Doing some exercises as preparation for an upcoming exam, but im sort of stuck at this exercise: \
Assume that $X_1,X_2,...$ is an i.i.d sequence, such that $X_1 \sim \mathcal{N} (\xi , \sigma^2)$, with $\xi>0$ . Define $$ S_n=\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{X_k}{k} $$ Show that $X_n \to \infty $ almost surely as n tends to infinity.
Im not aware of any theorem that can ease my way of showing this quickly. But im trying something going this direction: $$ X_n \stackrel{a.s.}{\to} \infty \iff \forall \varepsilon>0 : P(S_n>\varepsilon \quad evt.)=1 \iff \forall \varepsilon>0: P( S_n \leq \varepsilon \quad i.o.)=0 $$ $$ \Leftarrow \forall \varepsilon>0 : \sum_{k=1}^\infty P(S_n \leq \varepsilon) <\infty $$ And from here i dont know where to go, because i have no closed form expression of the above probabilities, or even any idea if it holds.
Any tips/tricks/solutions are welcome.