I have been asking a rather few questions of this nature lately, maybe I'm starting to realise math notation isn't as uniform as I initially thought it would be...
Question: Does this notation $$\frac{\partial(y_1,\dots,y_m)}{\partial(x_1,\dots,x_n)}$$ refer to the Jacobian matrix $$ J = \begin{bmatrix} \dfrac{\partial y_1}{\partial x_1} & \cdots & \dfrac{\partial y_1}{\partial x_n} \\ \vdots & \ddots & \vdots \\ \dfrac{\partial y_m}{\partial x_1} & \cdots & \dfrac{\partial y_m}{\partial x_n} \end{bmatrix},$$ or the Jacobian determinant $\det J$?
This answer seems to support the latter interpretation, while this (and Wikipedia) both support the former.
I am aware of the ambiguity of "Jacobian" being used to refer to either the determinant or the matrix itself, is this a similar case? It's really a bit annoying because when I see things like $$ \left| \frac{\partial(y_1,\dots,y_m)}{\partial(x_1,\dots,x_n)} \right| $$ I don't know if it means the absolute value of the Jacobian determinant, or the determinant of the Jacobian matrix.