In class we learned the existence and uniqueness theorems for differential equations. The weaker Picard-Lindelof states that for any IVP, $$ \begin{cases} x'(t) = f(t, x(t))\\ x(t_0) = x_0 \end{cases} $$ where $f$ is continuous in the first argument and locally Lipschitz in the second, there is a unique solution in some neighborhood around $t_0$ (in a open interval $I_0$ containing $t_0$). This result was extended to: there is a maximal unique solution to all IVP with the above form (Basically means there is biggest possible interval on which the solution is unique). More precisely, it means if $x:(a, b) \to \mathbb{R}^n$ is the maximal solution and $y:(a', b') \to \mathbb{R}^n$ is any other solution to the same IVP, then $(a', b') \subset (a, b)$ and $x = y$ on $(a', b')$.
My question is: can we find the maximal interval where there is a unique solution for any given IVP (also for any function $f$)?