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Suppose $f_n: X \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$, where $X$ is some arbitrary subset of $\mathbb{R}^N$. Suppose that $$ \forall n\geq0, \forall x \in X, \; f_n(x) \leq f_{n+1}(x) $$ Let $\{f_n\}$ be such that each $f_n(x)$ is continuous and $\forall x,\; \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}f_n(x) = f(x)$ exists, but is discontinuous. Hence, $\{f_n\}$ is point-wise convergent but not uniformly-convergent. My question is:

  • Is there any such sequence for which $$ \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} \inf_{x\in X} f_n(x) = \inf_{x\in X} \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} f_n(x) $$ (I know this is true for uniform convergence.)

  • If so, what is the best approach to prove it for that sequence?

Any solution or reference would be greatly appreciated. There have been similar questions before, like this one, however, I couldn't really relate to the answer. There's another one here.

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  • $\begingroup$ A counter example is $f_n(x)=1-1/n$ for $0< x<1/n$ and $f_n(x)=2$ for $x>1/n$. Then $\inf\lim f_n = 2$ while $\lim\inf f_n = 1$ $\endgroup$ Oct 15, 2013 at 6:55
  • $\begingroup$ Btw, the above example can be modified to work on any $X$ having at least two points. The case $X=\{a\}$ for some real $a$ is fine. $\endgroup$ Oct 15, 2013 at 7:07
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks, however, I wanted to know if there is some sequence of point-wise converging functions that does satisfy this. Can we create an example for that? $\endgroup$
    – Aamir Anis
    Oct 15, 2013 at 7:16
  • $\begingroup$ An example when it works is easy. By the way, the sentence starting with "Hence" is wrong, you might change that to "Hence $f_n$ converges, but we do not know if the convergence is uniform.". $\endgroup$ Oct 15, 2013 at 7:40
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for pointing out! I actually forgot to state that $\{f_n\}$ are continuous and point-wise convergent, and $f(x)$ is discontinuous. This should imply that $\{f_n\}$ is not uniformly convergent (right?). Also, unfortunately, I'm unable to figure out an example as you said (silly me!), could you please give me one when it is satisfied? $\endgroup$
    – Aamir Anis
    Oct 15, 2013 at 8:15

1 Answer 1

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It is not true in general. Let $g : \mathbb R \to \mathbb R$ such that $g(x) = 0$ if $x\leq 0$ and $g(x)=1 $ for $x\geq 1$ and increasing. Let $f_n(x) = g(x+n)$. Then $f_n$ is an increasing sequence converging to $f=1$. So the left hand side of the limit is $0$, while the right hand side is $1$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thanks, but earlier I had forgotten to mention that the $\{f_n(x)\}$ are continuous functions while $f(x)$ is discontinuous. I have modified the questions, but I guess there is a counter-example for that too. $\endgroup$
    – Aamir Anis
    Oct 15, 2013 at 22:01

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