Hi everyone I wonder to myself if the next proof is correct. I would appreciate any suggestion.
Proposition: There is not a sequence of natural numbers which is infinite descent.
Proof: Suppose for contradiction that there exists a sequence of natural numbers which is infinite descent. Let $(a_n)$ be such sequence, i.e., $a_n>a_{n+1}$ for all natural numbers n.
We claim that if the sequence exists, then $a_n\ge k$ for all $k, n \in N$.
We induct on $k$. Clearly the base case holds, since each $a_n$ is a natural number and then $a_n \ge 0$ for all $n$. Now suppose inductively that the claim holds for $k\ge 0$, i.e., $a_n\ge k$ for all $n \in N$; we wish to show that also holds for $k+1$ and thus close the induction. Furthermore, we get a contradiction since $a_n \ge k$ for all $k, n \in N$, implies that the natural numbers are bounded.
$a_n>a_{n+1}$ since $(a_n)$ is an infinite descent. By the inductive hypothesis we know that $a_{n+1}\ge k$, so we have $a_n>k$ and then $a_n\ge k+1$.
To conclude we have to show that the claim holds for every $n$. Suppose there is some $n_0$ such that $a_{n_0}<k+1$ so, $\,a_{n_0}\le k$. Then either $\,a_{n_0} = k$ or $\,a_{n_0} < k$ but both cases contradicts our hypothesis. Thus $a_n\ge k+1$ for all $n$, which close the induction.
Thanks :)