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Let $B_r(x_0)\subset \mathcal{R}^n$ be an open ball with radious $r>0$ and centered at $x_0$. Let $y_0\in \partial \overline{B}_r(x_0)$. I want to argue: there exists some $\delta>0$ such that both $B_\delta(y_0)\cap B_r(x_0)$ and $B_\delta(y_0)\setminus B_r(x_0)$ are connected. Is the statement true? If so, how do I make the argument rigorous? If not, could you please provide a counter example?

It is clear that $B_\delta(y_0)\cap B_r(x_0)$ is connected because intersection of two convex sets is convex and hence connected. I am having a hard time proving $B_\delta(y_0)\setminus B_r(x_0)$ is connected. From drawing little diagrams in $\mathcal{R}^2$, my intuition tells me it should be. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • $\begingroup$ Are you assuming a normed space? $\endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Commented yesterday
  • $\begingroup$ @copper.hat Yes, I am assuming the usual Euclidean norm. I think the answers I am getting are way more general and are over my head. Please help. $\endgroup$
    – curiosity
    Commented yesterday
  • $\begingroup$ For a quick idea, choose $\delta$ to be very large. $\endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Commented yesterday
  • $\begingroup$ False in one dimension $\mathbb R^1$. $\endgroup$
    – GEdgar
    Commented 19 hours ago

4 Answers 4

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EDIT: this answer was made before the revision of the question.

The answer is probably going to highly depend on the "geometry" of your overarching metric space, that is whether or not there are enough points "around" the set in question so that the complement remains connected.
Think for example of the cross made up of the $x$- and $y$-axes in the real plane $\mathbb{R}^2$, and take $x_0 = 0$, $r = 1$ with the usual Euclidean metric inherited from $\mathbb{R}^2$.
No matter which of the available points $y_0$ and which $\delta > 0$ you'll take, you can imagine that the complement of your desired set cannot be connected.
(I would draw this counterexample but I don't really know how to.)

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  • $\begingroup$ How about if I consider an open ball of radius 1 in $\mathcal{R}^2$. Let $y_0$ be any point on the boundary. When I draw a ball around $y_0$ with small enough $\delta$ I surely get two connected subsets of the ball. What extra assumptions am I making/ $\endgroup$
    – curiosity
    Commented yesterday
  • $\begingroup$ All of my points and sets are in $\mathcal{R}^n$ with the usual Euclidean metric. $\endgroup$
    – curiosity
    Commented yesterday
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If we are using the Euclidean metric with $n>1$ there is a quick answer. Choose $\delta> r$. Then $\partial {B}_r(x_0)$ does not intersect $\partial {B}_\delta(y_0)$. The boundary $\partial {B}_\delta(y_0)$ is path connected (see https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1801994/27978 for an idea of how to prove this). Pick $y \in B_\delta(y_0)\setminus B_r(x_0)$. Consider the line $l(t) = x_0+t(y-x_0)$, for $t\ge 1$ $l(t) \notin B_r(x_0)$ and for some $t' \ge 1$ we have $l(t') \in B_\delta(y_0)$. The same process shows that $y_0$ is path connected to $\partial {B}_\delta(y_0)$, hence we have the desired result.

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Edit: The following is a proof of the following statement. With notation as in the original question, there exists $\delta' > 0$ such that for all $\delta$ with $0 < \delta \leq \delta'$ the sets $B_{\delta}(y_0)\cap B_r(x_0)$ and $B_r(x_0)\setminus B_\delta(y_0)$ are connected.

This is slightly different from what the question asks for, chiefly in that the question asks for connectivity of $B_\delta(y_0)\setminus B_r(x_0)$. A similar strategy works for that with small enough $\delta$, though another answer provides an argument for large $\delta$.

For convenience, first notice that we can assume that $x_0 = 0$ because the translation $v\mapsto v-x_0$ is a homeomorphism (in fact, an isometry) of all the spaces of interest.

Take $\delta = r/2$ and convince yourself that the resulting complement of interest $C$ is path connected. It suffices to show that there is a path in $C$ starting at any point $x\in C$ and ending at $0$.

Reduce to the 2D case by finding a path contained in a plane $P$ which contains $x_0,x$ and $y_0$. There is an isometric embedding $\pi :P\cap (\overline{B_{r/2}(y_0)} \cup B_r(0)) \to \mathbb{R}^2$ with image $\overline{B_{r/2}(\pi(y_0))} \cup B_r(0) \subseteq\mathbb{R}^2$. You can write this projection down in linear algebra terms directly, if desired, by taking an orthonormal basis for $P$. In that case, $\pi$ is the map given by taking coordinates relative to the basis. The inverse is given by the appropriate matrix multiplication.

The problem has been reduced to finding a path between $0$ and $\pi(x)$ in $B_r(0)\setminus \overline{B_{r/2}(\pi(y_0))} $. But this is straightforward. Note that rotations are isometries in $\mathbb{R}^2$, so we can assume $\pi(y_0)$ is on the vertical axis for convenience. Consider the vertical line centered at $\pi(x)$ and the horizontal line centered at $0$ and convince yourself that they intersect on the interior of $B_r(0)\setminus \overline{B_{r/2}(\pi(y_0))}$, which yields the desired path.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you so much for trying to help. But I think your answer is way more advanced than my level. If I assume the usual Euclidean norm, would it get simpler? $\endgroup$
    – curiosity
    Commented yesterday
  • $\begingroup$ I don't understand your statement " It suffices to show that there is a path in $C$ starting at any $x\in C$ and ending at $0$." But $0$ is not in the set of interest, $C$. $\endgroup$
    – curiosity
    Commented yesterday
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    $\begingroup$ @curiosity A couple of things: (1) I think I've proven something slightly different from what you stated inadvertently. I'll edit in the formal statement of what this answer proves into the answer. (2) At the risk of some rigor to reduce the jargon: Connectivity of sets in $\mathbb{R}^n$ if you translate them. Or put another way, if you use a coordinate system, it does not matter what point is the origin when determining connectivity. So we can take $x_0 = 0$. If we make that assumption and take $\delta = r/2$, then $x_0 = 0 \in C$. $\endgroup$
    – user176372
    Commented yesterday
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    $\begingroup$ @curiosity I flipped which set you wanted connected is the issue there, check the update (whoops). The same basic argument works, except flip the roles of $x_0$ and $y_0$. $\endgroup$
    – user176372
    Commented yesterday
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    $\begingroup$ @curiosity To flip the argument, it'll be easier to take $y_0 = 0$. The key point in all of this, again sparing a bit of rigor, is that the question can be reduced to 2D. $\endgroup$
    – user176372
    Commented yesterday
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For brevity, I’ll call your points $x_0$, $y_0$ just $x$, $y$, and your balls $B = B_{r}(x)$, $B' = B_{\delta}(y)$. I claim that for every $\delta \in (0,r)$, $B' \setminus B$ is connected. (In fact it’s true for all $\delta > 0$, but I’ll only show it for $\delta < r$.) Here are sketches for a couple of simple and geometrically intuitive arguments:

(1) Let $z$ be the point of $\partial B'$ directly opposite $x$. Then (a) some small ball around $z$ is disjoint from $B$, so its intersection with $B'$ is convex, hence a connected subset of $B'\setminus B$; and (b) for any point in $B'\setminus B$, the line segment from it to $z$ is disjoint from $B$ (since distance from $x$ increases as you move towards $z$), and so gives a path from that point into the known connected subset.

(2) Taking the problem as given for dimension 2, we can get it for higher dimensions as follows: Take $z$ to be any point in $B' \setminus B$ lying on the same diameter of $B'$ as $x$, so that $(x,y,z)$ are collinear — for instance, $z := y - \varepsilon(x - y)$ for some small $\varepsilon > 0$. Now I claim any point $w$ in $B' \setminus B$ has a path to $z$ lying within $B \setminus B'$: Given any such $w$, there’s some plane $P$ containing all four mentioned points (generally, any three points in $\mathbb{R}^n$ lie in some plane; taking a plane containing $x$, $y$, and $w$, then it must also contain $z$ since $(x,y,z)$ are collinear). Now intersecting everything with this plane, we reduce to the 2-dimensional version of this situation, so taking that as known, $w$ must have some path to $z$ lying within $(B \setminus B') \cap P$. This shows that the problem is essentially just 2-dimensional.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you so much for your answer. In your notation $B$ is the one with radius $\delta$? $\endgroup$
    – curiosity
    Commented 21 hours ago
  • $\begingroup$ Your answer gave me a lot of intuition. I am still digesting this but thank you so much. From your argument, if I replace $B'$ with a bounded convex set, the argument still seems to work. Is that correct? $\endgroup$
    – curiosity
    Commented 20 hours ago
  • $\begingroup$ @curiosity: No, this argument doesn’t work for an arbitrary bounded convex set — e.g. if $B'$ is a small cube centred on $y_0$, then there will be points of $B\setminus B'$ for which the line segment to $z$ passes through $B'$ (specifically, points of $B$ near the boundary and just outside $B'$). Indeed, the result can fail for some bounded convex sets $B'$: work in the plane, take $B$ the unit ball at the origin, and take $B'$ to be the rectangle $[-2,1-\varepsilon] \times [0,1-\varepsilon]$, for some small $\varepsilon > 0$; then $B \setminus B'$ is not connected. $\endgroup$ Commented 20 hours ago
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    $\begingroup$ @curiosity: Sorry, I’d misread your question and was using $x_0$, $y_0$ the other way round from you. I’ll edit the answer to match your notation! $\endgroup$ Commented 20 hours ago
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    $\begingroup$ @curiosity: When I said that didn’t work, I had the rôles of $y$ and $x$ reversed compared to what you’d intended. With the rôles the right way round, I completely agree it does still work for $\delta$ small enough, but I think it needs a bit more argument to fully prove it? It would probably be better to ask that as a new followup question rather than continuing in comments here! $\endgroup$ Commented 18 hours ago

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