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I'm trying to solve the following quals problem, and I think I have the general idea, but there's one step I'm not sure about, and I highlight it below.

The problem:

Let $M=\mathbb{R}^3\setminus0$. Let $\Sigma_1\subset M$ be the unit sphere, and $\sigma_1$ its volume form such that \begin{equation} \int_{\Sigma_1}\sigma_1 = 1 \end{equation} Suppose $\rho:M\rightarrow\Sigma_1$ is the radial retraction, and $\omega=\rho^\ast(\sigma_1)$. If $f:\mathbb{R}^3\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ is a smooth compactly-supported function, then \begin{equation} \int_M df\wedge\omega \end{equation} depends only on $f(0)$.

My attempt is as follows: since $f$ is compactly supported, there's an $R$ such that $f\equiv0$ on $\Sigma_R$. Define \begin{align} A_r &= \{x\in M: r\le|x|\le R\}\\ B_r &= \{x\in M: |x|\le r\} \end{align} By Stokes' theorem then \begin{equation} \int_{A_r}df\wedge\omega = \int_{\Sigma_r}f\omega \end{equation} Because $\rho:\Sigma_r\rightarrow\Sigma_1$ is a diffeomorphism, it must be that $\rho^\ast(\sigma_1)=\sigma_r$ on $\Sigma_r$. So the integral on the right (and hence the left) satisfies \begin{equation} m_r \le \int_{\Sigma_r}f\omega \le M_r \end{equation} with $m_r=\min_{B_r}\{f(x)\}$ and $M_r=\max_{B_r}\{f(x)\}$.

Here's the part I'm unsure of. I want to claim \begin{equation} \int_M df\wedge\omega = \lim_{r\rightarrow0^+}\int_{A_r} df\wedge\omega = f(0) \end{equation} I believe I can prove the second equality via some squeeze-type argument, but how can I rigorously shows the first equality holds? It seems intuitive to me, but I'm not even sure how to prove the limit exists. I'm also concerned because this seems a much stronger conclusion than the problem asked for: the original integral was supposed to depend on $f(0)$, and I've shown it is $f(0)$!

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  • $\begingroup$ Is $\int_M \phi = \lim\limits_{r\to 0^+}\int_{\Sigma_r}\phi$? $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 5 at 0:52
  • $\begingroup$ If $f$ has spherical symmetry then this is easy, so maybe use $f$ to construct a spherically symmetric function I.e. by setting $g(r)$ to be equal to integral of $f$ over the sphere of radius $r$? $\endgroup$
    – Chris
    Commented Sep 5 at 6:06
  • $\begingroup$ Although now I have confused myself…why is this not just zero? We have that $f\omega$ is compactly supported and equals $df\wedge\omega$. $M$ is a manifold without boundary, so stokes theorem should imply this goes to zero right? $\endgroup$
    – Chris
    Commented Sep 5 at 6:15
  • $\begingroup$ @TedShifrin: thank you for the comment. Do you mean the integral over $A_r$ or $\Sigma_r$? I'm not sure if what you said is true, and maybe that's the crux of the issue? More help (or hints) would be most appreciated. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 5 at 14:40
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    $\begingroup$ Not quite. But you should use the fact that $\int_{A_r} \phi + \int_{B_r} \phi = \int_{A_r\cup B_r} \phi$ and then use continuity of $\phi$ at $0$ to deduce what you need. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 5 at 22:13

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I think this might work.

Write everything in spherical coordinates, then $\omega=\frac{1}{4\pi^2}\sin\theta d\theta d\phi$, and $df=\partial_rfdr+\partial_\theta fd\theta+\partial_\phi fd\phi$. It follows that: \begin{align} \int_Mdf \wedge \omega=&\frac{1}{4\pi}\int_0^{2\pi}\int_0^{\pi}\int_0^\infty (\partial_rf(r,\theta,\phi))\sin\theta drd\theta d\phi \end{align} Now we can integrate with respect to $r$ holding all other variables constant, so regardless of whether or not $f$ depends on $\theta$ and $\phi$, we know that $\int_0^\infty\partial_rf dr=f(0)$. However, $f(0)$ doesn't depend on $\theta$ or $\phi$ (as for all values of $\theta$ and $\phi$, $f$ must be the same at the orign, so this is a constant and we have that: $$\int_Mdf \wedge \omega=f(0)$$ Moreover, regarding my previous comment, for $f$ to have compact support on $M$, we must have that $f(0)=0$, as other wise the support of $f$ in $M$ can't be compact as it will be a compact set minus a point. It follows that this is not a counter example to stokes theorem which is nice.

Edit: A priori I guess there’s some finicky Lebesque integration stuff one “should” know and be careful about when integrating non compactly supported forms, but since $f$ has compact support on $\mathbb R^3$ everything is “probably” fine.

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  • $\begingroup$ Hi Chris, thank you for the answer. I haven't had a chance to work through your solution, but I wanted to clear up a misunderstanding: $f$ is defined on all of $\mathbb{R}^3$, not just $M$. So it's not true that $f(0)=0$, and also not necessarily true that $f$ has compact support on $M$ (so Stokes' theorem might not apply). $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 5 at 14:38
  • $\begingroup$ @Hempelicious yes I clear up that confusion (which was entirely my own) at the end of my solution $\endgroup$
    – Chris
    Commented Sep 5 at 14:43
  • $\begingroup$ Ah I see! Yes I think this does work, modulo some integration theory stuff you mentioned in your edit. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 5 at 22:08

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