This may just be goofy of me but there's a lot of proofs I've been seeing recently while learning real analysis that keep on invoking the Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem, and while I understand how it's being used and it makes sense, I don't quite understand why it needs to be used at all.
For example, this was a proof of the extreme value theorem,
If $f$ is continuous, then $f$ is bounded by the previous theorem. Thus, the set $E = \{f(x) | x \in [a, b]\}$ is bounded above. Let $L = \sup E$. Then,
- $L$ is an upper bound for $E$, i.e. $\forall x \in [a, b], f(x) \le L$.
- There exists a sequence $\{f(x_n)\}$ with $x_n \in [a, b]$ such that $f(x_n) \to L$.
By the Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem, there exists a subsequence $\{x_{n_k}\}$ of ${x_n}$ and $d \in [a, b]$ such that $x_{n_k} \to d$ as $k \to \infty$. Hence, $f(d) = \lim_{k \to \infty} f(x_{n_k}) = \lim{n \to \infty} f(x_n) = L$ by the continuity of $f$. Thus, $f$ achieves an absolute maximum at $d$.
I understanding creating a sequence in $[a,b]$ such that $f(x_n)$ approaches $L$. I also understand that for the sequence you can generate a subsequence such that $x_{n_k}$ approaches $d$. I'm just a little lost on why we can't just say that ${x_n}$ approaches $d$, and why we need to create a whole subsequence just to justify it. If there's anyone who can help me out here, many thanks.