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This may just be goofy of me but there's a lot of proofs I've been seeing recently while learning real analysis that keep on invoking the Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem, and while I understand how it's being used and it makes sense, I don't quite understand why it needs to be used at all.

For example, this was a proof of the extreme value theorem,

If $f$ is continuous, then $f$ is bounded by the previous theorem. Thus, the set $E = \{f(x) | x \in [a, b]\}$ is bounded above. Let $L = \sup E$. Then,

  1. $L$ is an upper bound for $E$, i.e. $\forall x \in [a, b], f(x) \le L$.
  2. There exists a sequence $\{f(x_n)\}$ with $x_n \in [a, b]$ such that $f(x_n) \to L$.
    By the Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem, there exists a subsequence $\{x_{n_k}\}$ of ${x_n}$ and $d \in [a, b]$ such that $x_{n_k} \to d$ as $k \to \infty$. Hence, $f(d) = \lim_{k \to \infty} f(x_{n_k}) = \lim{n \to \infty} f(x_n) = L$ by the continuity of $f$. Thus, $f$ achieves an absolute maximum at $d$.

I understanding creating a sequence in $[a,b]$ such that $f(x_n)$ approaches $L$. I also understand that for the sequence you can generate a subsequence such that $x_{n_k}$ approaches $d$. I'm just a little lost on why we can't just say that ${x_n}$ approaches $d$, and why we need to create a whole subsequence just to justify it. If there's anyone who can help me out here, many thanks.

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  • $\begingroup$ Can you share what reference you're looking at? The B-W theorem can be used as a start to phrase completeness. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 4 at 14:10
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    $\begingroup$ How can you ensure $x_n\to d?$ The sequence you have constructed has no reference to $d,$ and you have no idea it converges. If there are two $d_1\neq d_2$ such that $f(d_1)=f(d_2)=L,$ you might not be able to ensure $x_n$ converges to anything, but some subsequence will. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 4 at 14:12

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Here's an example: let $f(x) = |x|$ on $[-1,1]$. The sequence $x_n = (-1)^n(1-1/n)$ satisfies $f(x_n) \to 1$, but the sequence is not convergent. Nothing in the proof rules out $x_n$ being a sequence like that, which is why you need to take a subsequence.

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  • $\begingroup$ In this case, the subsequence $(x_{2n})$ converges to $1$. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 4 at 14:20
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you all for the answers, it makes sense now - thank you very much $\endgroup$
    – andrew
    Commented Sep 4 at 14:25
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The underlying reason is simply beacuse the B-W is a strong result. In general, we know very little about sequnces, but a lot about converging sequances, so the B-W theorem provides some insight about general sequances. In the proof you described, the problem is that we do not know a lot about $x_n$. we cannot concluse that $x_n->d$. for example, the sequance $x_n = (-1)^n$ is clearly not converging but the subsequance $x_{2n}$ is constant, thus converges to 1. In a broader sense, the B-W theorem shows that a closed interval in $\Bbb R$, namely $[a, b]$ with $a<b$ is a compact set (which you will find later that it is a really useful trait).

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