Assume you have a box with 3 blue balls and 5 red balls. Player $A$ choose 3 balls uniformly at random. Player $B$ choose 2 balls uniformly at random from the balls player $A$ has chosen. What is the probability that the player $B$ chose one ball from each color?
I've done it with the law of total probability $$ \frac{\binom{3}{1}\binom{5}{2}}{\binom{8}{3}}\cdot\frac{1\cdot2}{3}+\frac{\binom{3}{2}\binom{5}{1}}{\binom{8}{3}}\cdot\frac{2\cdot1}{3} $$ However, it seems that one can claim that you can ignore the first Player and compute the probability of choosing one red and one blue ball. $$ \frac{5\cdot 3}{\binom{8}{2}} $$ If someone can justify it formally, it would be awesome. Is it always true, when conditioning on uniform distribution?