$\cot(π/2)$ is said to be $0$ rather than undefined, even though it equals $1/\tan(π/2)$ and $\tan (π/2)$ is undefined.
Some people also say that cotangent is "base divided by perpendicular": for $\theta=π/2,$ the base is $0,$ so cotangent equals $0.$ Using the concept of limits, other people argue that $\theta$ is not equal to $π/2$ but very close to it: $\cot(\theta)$ is approaching $0$ from both sides, so $\cot(\theta)$ is equal to $0$ at $\theta=π/2.$
Okay I am convinced by this second argument. But now consider the exercise $$\frac{a}{b+c} = \frac{b}{c+a} = \frac{c}{b+a} = \frac{1}{k}.$$ Writing separate equations like $a =\frac{b+c}{k}$ then addding them, we get $(a + b + c)= \frac{2(a + b + c)}{k}$ and finally $k=2,$ though only if $a+b+c\not=0.$ If we use the concept of limits, we see that as $a+b+c$ approaches $0,$ $k$ is heading towards $2.$ However, if $a=1, b=1, c=-2,$ then $k=-1$ is another answer. What's going on? Why do we sometimes use the concept of limits but sometimes not, for similar kind of problems?
a = $\frac{b+c}{k}$
write$a = \frac{b+c}{k}$
. Also, avoid the use of unusual characters like π that won't render properly in some devices. Instead use MathJax and write it like\pi
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