I feel uncertain about what should be quite basic reasoning — my maths knowledge is elementary. I am reading the first chapter of Nikolai Piskunov's Differential and Integral Calculus.
A proof of the reverse triangle inequality is set out as follows:
The absolute value of a difference is no less than the difference of the absolute values of the minuend and subtrahend. $$|x-y|\ge |x|-|y| \text{, } |x|>|y|$$ Proof. Let $x-y=z$, then $x=y+z$ and from what has been proved $$|x|=|y+z|\leq |y|+|z|=|y|+|x-y|$$ whence $$|x|-|y|\le |x-y|$$ thus completing the proof.
("what has been proved" refers to $\forall \{x,y\}\in\mathbb{R}(|x+y|\leq |x|+|y|)$.)
I'm wondering why this proof would necessarily imply the condition $|x|>|y|$. Or have I perhaps misunderstood the formatting, and it does not signify a condition?