I am currently reading the book "A Geometric Approach to Differential Forms" from Bachman (edition 2). There, exercise 3.21 states the following:
Show that if $\omega$ is a 2-form on $T_p \mathbb{R}^3$, then there is a line $l$ in $T_p\mathbb{R}^3$ such that if the plane spanned by $V_1$ and $V_2$ contains $l$, then $\omega(V_1,V_2)=0$.
I am confused on several levels here.
What I think I understand
My intuition is that there are nonzero $V_1$ and $V_2$ vectors such that $V_1\neq c V_2$ ($c$ being an arbitrary constant; vectors are not linearly dependent), but $\omega(V_1,V_2)=0$.
In other words, there exists some plane $T_p \mathbb{R}^3$ where $(V_1,V_2)$ are projected and they lie in top of each other, as in the drawing below where the two form is instead $\omega \wedge \nu$, $\omega$ and $\nu$ being 1-forms:
In this configuration, $V_1$ and $V_2$ are obviously on a line $l$. So, in this case, when the plane spanned by $(V_1,V_2)$ is equal to the line $l$, then we get $\omega(V_1,V_2)=0$ by necessity.
What confuses me
The word "contains" is confusing me because there may exist a plane on $T_p \mathbb{R}^3$, where the projection of $(V_1,V_2)$ spans a plane that contains the line $l$, but such that $\omega(V_1,V_2)\neq 0$ as in the following drawing:
The area of the projected parallelogram is evidently nonzero ($\omega(V_1,V_2)\neq 0$) in this case, and the second part of the proof I am looking for does not apply:
... if the plane spanned by $V_1$ and $V_2$ contains $l$, then $\omega(V_1,V_2)=0$.
What am I missing here? Why is it that when there is a line $l$ in $T_p \mathbb{R}^3$ contained in the plane spanned by $(V_1,V_2)$, $\omega(V_1,V_2)=0$?