A quick observation of running numbers for $n = 3$ it reveals that
The number of times there are flips (by which I mean a smiley face to no smiley face) within these events. Besides the first day, every time there is a flip, the successive day has a probability of $\dfrac{1}{3}$ of smiley face, and every time there is no flip, the successive day has a probability of $\dfrac{2}{3}$ of smiley face. The count of flips follows a binomial distribution of terms.
For $n = 3$,
No of flips; Total; Starting state
0 ; 1; Smiley
1 ; 2; No Smiley
2 ; 1; Smiley
So it follows that the $2^{(n-1)}$ follows a binomial distribution with probability of smiley $\dfrac{2}{3}$ and probability of no smiley$\dfrac{1}{3}$ such as this
For $n = 3$
$^{2}C_{0}(\frac{2}{3})(\frac{2}{3}) + ^{2}C_{1}(\frac{2}{3})(\frac{1}{3}) + ^{2}C_{2}(\frac{1}{3})(\frac{1}{3})$
In other words for $^{(n-1)}C_{i}(p^{(n-1-i)}*(q^{(i)})$, the even terms respond to a smiley while odd terms respond to no smiley
Extending it to any n,
Sum of Even terms = $\frac{1}{2}\left[(\frac{2}{3} +\frac{1}{3})^{(n-1)}+(\frac{2}{3} -\frac{1}{3}))^{(n-1)}\right]$
= $\frac{1}{2}\left[1+(\frac{1}{3})^{(n-1)}\right]$
Required Probability = $\frac{1}{2}\left[1 + \frac{1}{3}^{(n-1)}\right]$
when n= 10 => $\frac{1}{2}\left[1+(\frac{1}{3})^{9}\right]$
= $\frac{9842}{19683}$
Let me know if this approach is reasonable.