I have the following minimization problem $$ \min_{p,r} \int_0^\infty (r^2 + p^2) dt $$ subject to $$ \dot r = - r + \dot p,\quad p(0)=p_0,\quad r(0)=r_0, \quad p(\infty)=0, \quad r(\infty)=0. $$ This problem is feasible I can easily find admisble $p(t)$ fast converging to zero and then $r(t)$ such that this intergal is finite. So I built a Lagrangian: $$ \cal L(p_0,r_0)= \int_0^\infty r^2+p^2 + \lambda ( \dot r+r - \dot p) dx $$ and derived Euler-Lagrange equations: \begin{align} p: 0=-2p + \dot \lambda \\ r: 0 = 2r +\lambda - \dot\lambda\\ \lambda: 0 = \dot r + r -\dot p\\ \end{align} combining second and third equation I am getting: $$ \dot p = \dot r +r = 1/2(\ddot \lambda - \dot \lambda + \dot \lambda - \lambda) = 1/2(\ddot \lambda - \lambda). $$ On the other hand from the first equation: $$ \dot p = -1/2(\ddot \lambda) $$ combining them I am getting: $$ 2\ddot \lambda -\lambda = 0. $$ The boundary conditions for $\lambda$ are the following \begin{align} \dot \lambda(0)&= 2p_0, \dot \lambda(\infty)=0 \text { from the first equation } \\ \dot \lambda(0)-\lambda(0) &= 2r_0, \lambda(\infty)=0 \text { from the second equation} \end{align} Simplifying: \begin{align} \dot \lambda(0)&= 2p_0, \dot \lambda(\infty)=0 \text { from the first equation } \\ \lambda(0) &= 2p_0-2r_0, \lambda(\infty)=0 \text { from the second equation} \end{align} The problem is that the second order ode has only 2 constants and I cannot satisfy 4 boundary conditions for arbirary $p_0,r_0$. So I am a bit confused , it seems there is no optimal solution for this system since I cannot resolve lagrange equations.However if I remove constrains for $p_0$ and solve the system, I will get $\lambda^*(t),p^*(t),r^*(t)$ . Then I can built a sequience $p_\epsilon(t)\to p^*(t)$ such that $p_\epsilon(0)=p_0$ in the limit it will be a function with inifnite derivative at 0.So $p_\epsilon(t)$ will be somehow $\epsilon$-suboptimal. My main question to the community: am I right? If yes why actually the above system does not have a solution and only $\epsilon$-solution.The problem is convex and well defined.
SOME UPDATE:
$$
\lambda(t) = c_1 e^{-\frac{t}{\sqrt{2}}} +c_2 e^{\frac{t}{\sqrt{2}}}.
$$
The only case when all 4 conditions are satisfied is when
$$
c_2=0,-\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} c_1 = 2p_0, c_1 =2p_0 -2 r_0
$$
Namely
$$
2p_0-2r_0 = -2 \sqrt{2} p_0 \to (1+\sqrt{2})p_0 = r_0.
$$