I am trying to prove that in an affine scheme $\operatorname{Spec}A$ that an irreducible component can be written as the vanishing locus $V(\mathfrak p)$ for a minimal prime ideal $\mathfrak p$, but I am getting very confused.
So if $I$ is a minimal prime ideal over an ideal $J$ then it is the smallest prime ideal such that $J\subset I$, i.e. if $\mathfrak p$ is a prime ideal containing $J$ then $I\subset \mathfrak p$.
It is easy to see that every irreducible closed subset of $\operatorname{Spec}A$ corresponds to $V(I)$ with $I$ prime, but isn't every prime minimal over itself? So what does this even mean? Because it seems to imply to me that every prime ideal corresponds to an irreducible component of $\operatorname{Spec}A$, but this can be true because something like $A=\mathbb C[x]$ has infinitely many primes, but in this case $\operatorname{Spec}A$ is a Noetherian scheme so has finitely many irreducible components.
Wikipedia says that a prime ideal is minimal when it is minimal over the zero ideal, but then if $I$ is prime doesn't this mean that $I\subset \mathfrak p$ for every prime ideal of $A$ so $V(I)=\operatorname{Spec}A$?
I suspect I am messing something up here...