Let $f$ be a holomorphic function such that $f(\mathbb{R})\subseteq \mathbb{R}$ and $f(i\mathbb{R})\subseteq i\mathbb{R}$. Prove that $f(-z)=-f(z)$.
We want to prove $g(z)=f(-z)+f(z)$ is zero. Notice that $g(0)=2f(0)=0$, because $f(0)\in \mathbb{R}\cap i\mathbb{R}$. If we prove there is an accumulation point of zeros of $g$ converging to $0$, we are done by the identity theorem.
Let me write $f(z)=u(x,y)+iv(x,y)$. In this case, $$g(z)=(u(x,y)+u(-x,-y))+i(v(x,y)+v(-x,-y))$$
$g(x)=u(x,0)+u(-x,0)$ and also $g(iy)=i(v(0,y)+v(0,-y))$. If we prove $g'(x)$ to be constant, then we have our function $g$ being zero in all of $\mathbb{R}$ and we are done as this clearly implies $0$ has an accumulation point of zeros and is itself a zero! By the Cauchy Riemman equations:
$$g'(x)=u_x(x,0)-u_x(-x,0)=v_y (x,0)-v_y(-x,0)$$
We notice $v(x,0)=0$ for any $x$ because of $f(\mathbb{R})\subseteq \mathbb{R}$. This doesn't seem very promissing.