Consider the following function:
$$f_k(p_1,p_2,..,p_k) = \frac{2}{1 + d}\left((-1)^k + 2\sum_{i=1}^k (-1)^{i+1}p_i\right)\left((-1)^k + 2\sum_{i=1}^k (-1)^{i+1}p_i^{d+1}\right)$$
where $k$ is the number of variables, and the following conditions hold:
- $d > 0$
- $0 < p_i < 1$ for all $i = 1, 2, \ldots, k$
- $p_i < p_{i+1}$ for all $i = 1, 2, \ldots, k-1$
- $k \in \mathbb{N}$
I suspect that the following inequality is true:
$$\min_{p_1, p_2, \ldots, p_k} f_{k \geq 2} > \min_{p_1} f_{k=1}$$
Meaning that the minimum value of the function $f$ with more than 2 variables is always greater than the minimum value of function with one variable. As an example, consider the following:
$$f_1(p_1) = \frac{2}{1 + d}\left(-1 + 2p_1\right)\left(-1 + 2p_1^{d+1}\right)$$
$$f_2(p_1,p_2) = \frac{2}{1 + d}\left(1 + 2(p_1 - p_2)\right)\left(1 + 2(p_1^{d+1} - p_2^{d+1})\right)$$
Now I suspect that the following inequality is true:
$$\min_{p_1, p_2} f_2(p_1,p_2) > \min_{p_1} f_1(p_1)$$
I have confirmed this numerically, but I am struggling to validate it analytically. The problem arises from the fact that the derivative of this function (with respect to $p_i$) even for $k=1$ is a transcendental equation with no analytical solution. Therefore, the obvious approach of setting the derivative to zero is not possible. I am wondering if there is a way to exploit the given conditions to prove the stated inequality. Any help would be greatly appreciated.