Let $\mathbf{f}: \mathbb{R}^{n} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^{m}$ be a vector field. Suppose I wish to compute $\frac{\partial \mathbf{f(x)}}{\partial \mathbf{x}}$. Then we have the Jacobian.
$$\frac{\partial \mathbf{f(x)}}{\partial \mathbf{x}} = \begin{bmatrix} \frac{\partial f_1}{\partial x_1} & \frac{\partial f_1}{\partial x_2} & \cdots & \frac{\partial f_1}{\partial x_n} \\ \frac{\partial f_2}{\partial x_1} & \frac{\partial f_2}{\partial x_2} & \cdots & \frac{\partial f_2}{\partial x_n} \\ \vdots & \vdots & \ddots & \vdots \\ \frac{\partial f_m}{\partial x_1} & \frac{\partial f_m}{\partial x_2} & \cdots & \frac{\partial f_m}{\partial x_n} \end{bmatrix}$$ Now, the directional derivative of a scalar field $f$ can be define as
$$f'(\mathbf{x}; \mathbf{y}) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(\mathbf{x} + h\mathbf{y}) - f(\mathbf{x})}{h} $$
Here's my issue. In principle, I should be able to make $\mathbf{f}$ a scalar field by simply setting $m=1$. This would then become $$\frac{\partial \mathbf{f(x)}}{\partial \mathbf{x}} = \begin{bmatrix} \frac{\partial f_1}{\partial x_1} & \frac{\partial f_1}{\partial x_2} & \cdots & \frac{\partial f_1}{\partial x_n} \\ \end{bmatrix}$$
My confusion is why this would be a vector here, but then not for operation for the directional derivative above (at least it doesn't look like it).
Can someone clarify this for me?