I am new to measure theory. I am confused by the following claim from Measure Theory by Donald Cohn (Section 1.5 Completeness and Regularity):
Claim$\quad$ The restriction of Lebesgue measure to the $\sigma$-algebra of Borel subsets of $\mathbb{R}$ is not complete.
In this post, I will denote the Lebesgue outer measure by $\lambda^*$.
According to the textbook,
Definition$\quad$ The restriction of Lebesgue outer measure on $\mathbb{R}$ (or on $\mathbb{R}^d$) to $\mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R})$ or to $\mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^d)$ is called Lebesgue measure and will be denoted by $\lambda$.
The restriction of Lebesgue outer measure on $\mathbb{R}$ (or on $\mathbb{R}^d$) to the collection of Lebesgue measurable subsets of $\mathbb{R}$ (or of $\mathbb{R}^d$) is also called Lebesgue measure and will be denoted by $\lambda$ as well.
Definition$\quad$ Let $(X,\mathcal{A},\mu)$ be a measure space. The measure $\mu$ (or the measure space $(X,\mathcal{A},\mu)$) is complete if the relations $A\in\mathcal{A}$, $\mu(A)=0$, and $B \subseteq A$ together imply that $B\in\mathcal{A}$.
So, my understanding of this claim is the following:
Let $(\mathbb{R},\mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}),\lambda)$ be a measure space. Let $A$ be a Borel subset of $\mathbb{R}$ with $\lambda(A)=0$. There exists a subset $B$ of $A$ such that $B \notin \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R})$.
I saw that this post used a Vitali set as an example to show that such a set $B$ does exist. However, I am very confused by its explanation. Let $V$ be a Vitali set in $[0,1]$. I know that, since $V$ is not measurable with respect to the Lebesgue outer measure $\lambda^*$, it follows that $V \notin \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R})$. I think we would want to find a set $A$ such that $A \in \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R})$, $\lambda(A)=0$, and $V \subseteq A$. But what exactly is this $A$ in the example?
In that post I mentioned above, it seems to me that it wanted to say that the Vitali set $V$ is of Lebesgue measure zero in $\mathbb{R}^2$ and itself is not a Borel subset of $\mathbb{R}^2$. However, if $V$ is not even Lebesgue measurable (i.e., $V$ is not measurable with respect to the Lebesgue outer measure), wouldn't $\lambda(V)$ be not defined? In addition, I couldn't see how his example showed the claim is true, because there was no such set $A \subseteq \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R})$.
Basically, I am completely lost. I would really appreciate it if someone could help me clarify it or present another example!
As @LeeMosher pointed out. The claim should have been understood in the following way:
Let $(\mathbb{R},\mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}),\lambda)$ be a measure space. For some Borel subset $A$ of $\mathbb{R}$ with $\lambda(A) = 0$, there exists a subset $B$ of $A$ where $B \notin \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R})$.