I saw this interesting problem:
$$\int_0 ^1 \left( \frac{x^2}{1+x^2} \right)\frac{1-x\tan(x)+ \tan(x)-x}{1 -x\tan(x)-\tan(x)-x}dx$$
I tied all the tricks that I know and non of them were useful at all after some thoughts I tried to graph the function to if there is some way I can use king's rule after some substitution to simplify the integral and the graph is very strange
So one of my friends tried to use wolfram alpha and it gave two different values!
This made is integral more strange and I don't know how it is possible that wolfram found two different values. I think it might be related to Riemann's rearrangement theorem.