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If one has $\neg p \vee q$ and $\neg q$, does one need to apply the Commutative Law to $\neg p \vee q$ to obtain $q \vee \neg p$, before concluding that $\neg p$ ?

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  • $\begingroup$ You can define the rule either way. $\endgroup$
    – PW_246
    Feb 24 at 5:01

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