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  • $\Phi(x)$ is the cumulative distribution function of the standard normal distribution.
  • $\varphi(x)$ is the probability density function of the standard normal distribution.

I'm an engineer rather than a mathematical researcher. During my work I need to know that if $\Phi(x) - x\Phi(x)\varphi(x) - \varphi(x)^2$ is always non-negative for any $x\in(-\infty,\infty)$. I have tried to calculate the values of the above formula in a wide range of $x$, and it shows that the values are certainly larger than $0$. But I don't know how to strictly prove that the lower bound of $\Phi(x) - x\Phi(x)\varphi(x) - \varphi(x)^2$ is $0$ or not. Please help.

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  • $\begingroup$ Please provide more context, including your initial approaches into answering your question. Isolated questions such as this one (completely lacking context) are not what Math Stack Exchange is designed for. Wither proper contextualization and details, your question may be closed soon. $\endgroup$
    – Nightytime
    Commented Jan 8 at 3:39
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    $\begingroup$ Welcome to MSC. You can simply plot the function to see its behavior. Adding some details may motivate the members to help to prove your findings. $\endgroup$
    – Amir
    Commented Jan 8 at 21:35

1 Answer 1

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I presume that $\varphi(x)=\frac 1{\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{-x^2/2}$ and $\Phi(x)=\int_{-\infty}^x\varphi(y)\,dy$. If not, please clarify what you mean by standard normal.

We'll just show that the derivative of your expression is positive everywhere. Since at $-\infty$ it tends to $0$, that will establish the claim.

Differentiating and using $\Phi'=\varphi, \varphi'=-x\varphi$, we get the full derivative equal to $$ \varphi-\varphi\Phi+x^2\varphi\Phi-x\varphi^2+2x\varphi^2=\varphi[1-\Phi+x\varphi+x^2\varphi] $$ Since $\varphi>0$ and $x^2\varphi>0$, it suffices to show that $1-\Phi+x\varphi>0$. When $x\ge 0$, it is trivial because $1-\Phi>0$ and $x\varphi\ge 0$. When $x<0$, we have $1-\Phi>\frac 12$ and $$ |x|\varphi(x)=\frac 1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\sqrt{x^2e^{-x^2}}\le \frac 1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\le \frac 12 $$ just because $e^s>1+s$, so $se^{-s}\le 1$ for $s\ge 0$ (you can do better, but you don't need to).

That's it. Hope this helps a bit. Feel free to ask questions if something is unclear.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you very much. It has really helped me and I also found that there may be a simpler way to show that the derivative of the expression is always non-negative by taking the derivative of d/dx (1-Φ+xφ) = -x^2φ ≤ 0 which shows that the minimum of (1-Φ+xφ) is 0 when x→+∞. Then we can calculate the limit of the expression when x→-∞ to obtain that the lower bound of the expression is exactly 0. Thank you again to express my huge appreciation to you. $\endgroup$
    – Rokutousei
    Commented Jan 11 at 4:02
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    $\begingroup$ @Rokutousei You are welcome! And nevermind the closure and downvotes. Your post was crystal clear. Come to MSE again if you need help with something else :-). $\endgroup$
    – fedja
    Commented Jan 11 at 10:35

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