I recently started studying complex function theory and I'm solving some exercises to understand the various theorems:
The firt exercise is:
Let $R := \{z = x + i y : |x| <1 \text{ and } 0 <y <2\}$. Determine (without calculation) the value of the integral $\int_{∂R} \frac{1}{(z − i)^3}dz$.
I have following solutions:
We have $\int_{∂R} \frac{1}{(z − i)^3}dz=-1/2(z-i)^{-2}|_{∂R}=0$
How did he understand so easily that the integral returned zero? What theorem did he use?
The second exercise where I have some questions is:
Determine the value of the integral $\int_{|z|=2}\frac{sin(z)}{z-\pi/4}dz$
The solutions are:
According to Cauchy's integral theorem
$\int_{|z|=2}\frac{sin(z)}{z-\pi/4}dz=2\pi i \dot \sin(\pi/4)=\pi i \sqrt{2}$
I don't understand how we manage to solve this integral using cauchy. Could someone explain it to me, perhaps by writing some middle steps?