Legendre's conjecture is that there exists a prime number between $n^2$ and $(n+1)^2$. This has been shown to be very likely using computers, but this is merely a heuristic. I have read that if this conjecture is true, the biggest gap between two consecutive primes is $O(\sqrt{p})$; the Riemann Hypothesis, on the other hand, implies that this gap is $O(\sqrt{p}\log{p})$, which is a wider gap for sufficiently large inputs. This leaves me asking the following question, which I am aware may be a bit naive, but I want to be sure:
Would a proof of Legendre's conjecture also be considered a proof of Riemann's hypothesis?
EDIT: I am aware that the way the asymptotic above were expressed was in terms of prime numbers, and that the Riemann Hypothesis is concerned about everything in between as well; would a proof of this sort need to show this upper bound for all inputs, or would the prime numbers be sufficient?
EDIT 2: It seems to me that, if a proof of Legendre's conjecture could result in a proof of the Riemann hypothesis, that this would come from the $\log{x}$ term of the asymptotic, showing that this term is never smaller than what results from the distance between primes. In other words, this would have to be an inductive proof, showing an initial case and, as a result of that initial case and the fact that the gap is $O(\sqrt{p})$ for that case, all future cases must therefore be $O(\sqrt{p} \log{p})$. I hate to add to my question once again, but please tell me if this is completely off.