Let $E/F$ be a field extension, and $a_1,\ldots,a_n \in E$. Is it true that $F(a_1,\ldots,a_{n-1})(a_n)=F(a_1,\ldots,a_n)$? Recall that for any $S\subset E$, $F(S)$ is the subfield of $E$ generated by $S$ over $F$, i.e, $F(S)=(F\cup S)$.
If $S=\{a_1,\ldots,a_{n-1}\}$ and $T=\{a_1,\ldots,a_n\}$, then clearly $S\subset T$, so that $F(S)\subset F(T)$ and therefore $(F(S)\cup\{a_n\})\subset F(T)$ by minimality, that is to say, $F(S)(a_n)\subset F(T)$. For reverse inclusion I have been trying to use a similar argument but getting nowhere. Thanks in advance.