When $a_1 = 1$, then $a_n$ converges to $\frac{1+\sqrt5}{2}$, But if we let $a_1 > 1$, does the conclusion still hold? Here's what I tried:
First, we can easily conclude $1<a_n<2$,let $f(x) = 1+ x/(1+x),\; (x>1)$, then $f'(x) = 1/(1+x)^2$. So $f(x)$ is strictly increasing. So $$ a_{n+1}> a_n\Leftrightarrow f(a_n) > f(a_{n-1})\Leftrightarrow a_n >a_{n-1} $$ Finally we can get $a_{n+1}> a_n\Leftrightarrow a_2 >a_1$.
Then $$ a_2 - a_1 = 1+a_1/(1+a_1) - a_1 = \dfrac{1+a_1 - a_1 ^2}{1+a_1} $$ The condition is $a_1> 1$, let $g(x)=1+x-x^2\; (x>1)$, the graph of $g(x)$:
Here is the problem : must $a_2 - a_1$ be greater than 0, equals to 0, or less than 0 ?
So is the conclusion incorrect when a is greater than 1?