[Analytic Number Theory - Florian Luca and Jean Marie De Koninck, chapter 14, question 14.2]
A series of questions asks to prove the following:-
Prove $$\sum _{r=1}^{p-1}r\left(\frac{r}{p}\right)=0$$ for any prime $p\equiv 1\pmod 4$.
Prove $$\sum _{r=1}^{p-1}r^2\left(\frac{r}{p}\right)=p\sum _{r=1}^{p-1}r\left(\frac{r}{p}\right)$$ for any prime $p\equiv 3\pmod 4$.
Prove $$\sum _{r=1}^{p-1}r^3\left(\frac{r}{p}\right)=\frac{3p}{2}\sum _{r=1}^{p-1}r^2\left(\frac{r}{p}\right)$$ for any prime $p\equiv 1\pmod 4$.
Prove $$\sum _{r=1}^{p-1}r^4\left(\frac{r}{p}\right)=2p\sum _{r=1}^{p-1}r^3\left(\frac{r}{p}\right)-p^2\sum_{r=1}^{p-1}r^2\left(\frac rp\right)$$ for any prime $p\equiv 3\pmod 4$.
All these exercises can be solved by manipulating the expressions a bit and using the fact that for $p\equiv 1\pmod 4$, we have $\left(\frac{-1}{p}\right)=1$ and for $p\equiv 3\pmod 4$, we have $\left(\frac{-1}{p}\right)=-1$.
But, the form in which these are written suggests that there is room for generalizing these equalities. My question is whether any general equation of the following type is true :- $$\sum _{r=1}^{p-1}r^{2k}\left(\frac{r}{p}\right)=\sum_{i=1}^{2k-1} c_i(p)\sum _{r=1}^{p-1}r^{2k-i}\left(\frac{r}{p}\right)$$ for $p\equiv 3\pmod 4$, and $$\sum _{r=1}^{p-1}r^{2k-1}\left(\frac{r}{p}\right)=\sum_{i=1}^{2k-2} c^\prime_i(p)\sum _{r=1}^{p-1}r^{2k-1-i}\left(\frac{r}{p}\right)$$ for $p\equiv 1\pmod 4$.
It would probably not be very difficult (in terms of ideas, not computation) to prove such an equality if it's already known to be true. But, I can't see how one can derive one without getting their hands a little too dirty.