This question may seem silly at first. We say that a series $\sum a_n$ is a telescoping series if there exists a sequence $(b_n)$ with $a_n=b_n-b_{n+1}$ for every $n$. One can show that $\sum a_n$ converges if and only if the sequence $(b_n)$ converges. It is thus desirable to know if a series is a telescoping series, and then find a "telescoping form".
This begs the question, which is in the title, is every series a telescoping series? I have little doubt that the answer is that not every series is a telescoping series. The problem I have in finding a counterexample is that it seems hard to prove that given a sequence $(a_n)$ there is no sequence $(b_n)$ such that $a_n=b_n-b_{n+1}$ for every $n\in\mathbb{N}$.
I have another question which is related enough to the first question so I'll ask it in this post. If we have $a_n=b_n-b_{n+1}$ then we also have $a_n=c_n-c_{n+1}$ where $c_n=b_n+c$ for some $c$. Somewhat analogous to antiderivatives, given sequences $(a_n),(b_n)$ with $a_n=b_n-b_{n+1}$ then if $(c_n)$ satisfies $a_n=c_n-c_{n+1}$ then does there exist a $c$ such that $c_n=b_n+c$? If the answer is affirmative then given a telescoping series we can find all of its "telescoping forms".