So, suppose we are told to show the statement: "If $\frac{1}{x}$ is irrational, then $x$ is also irrational."
This seems pretty clearly true, and I can't think of a counterexample, but when we consider the logically equivalent contrapositive: "If $x$ is rational, then $\frac{1}{x}$ is rational." we see that this statement is untrue for $x=0$. Does this imply the original statement is also false?