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Let $G$ be a group. Assume there is an element $\phi\in\text{Aut}(G)$ such that $\phi(x)=x\Rightarrow x=e$, where $e$ is the identity of $G$, and that $\phi^2$ is the identity automorphism on $G$. I need to show that $G$ is abelian.

My attempt:

Let $\sim$ be a relation defined on $G$ as follows: For $x,y\in G$, we write $x\sim y$ iff $x=\phi(y)$ or $x=y$. Then $\sim$ is an equivalence relation on $G$ with each equivalence class containing $2$ elements except for the equivalence class of $e$ which has just $1$ element. So $|G|$ is odd.

Another observation is that if $\phi(x)=y$ then $\phi(xy)=yx$. Since the question asks us to prove that $G$ is abelian, the above suggests that $\phi$ sends each element to its inverse although I am not able to prove this fact. In fact if $\phi$ sends each element to its inverse then it easily follows that $G$ is abelian.

Any help is greatly appreciated. Please try to give insights as to how you arrived at your solution.

Thank you.

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    $\begingroup$ Is $G$ supposed to be finite? $\endgroup$
    – user33321
    Aug 27, 2013 at 19:00
  • $\begingroup$ Yes. I am really sorry. I forgot to mention that $G$ is finite. I actually used this fact in the first paragraph of my attempt. $\endgroup$ Aug 27, 2013 at 19:01

1 Answer 1

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Hint:

Replace $x$ with $x^{-1}y$ in the property of $\phi$. This tells a certain function $G \to G$ is injective.

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  • $\begingroup$ I guess $x\mapsto x^{-1}\phi(x)$ is an injection. It's easily proved. Thank you. This solves the question. But can you enlighten me if there is a deeper idea at work here? It seems pretty out of the blue to see that each element of $G$ can be written as $z^{-1}\phi(z)$ for some $z\in G$. $\endgroup$ Aug 27, 2013 at 19:33
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you Serkan for your kind help. Can you give me some tips on how do become awesome at algebra? As in what books to read or any other thing you might want to tell me. $\endgroup$ Aug 27, 2013 at 19:52

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