It seems reasonable to me to conjecture that the weak derivative is a special case of Radon-Nikodym derivative between measures. Recall that (missing some technical details):
- Weak derivative: given a function $f:I=(a,b) \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$, $f'$ is called its weak derivative if for every $\varphi \in C^\infty_c(I)$ it holds that $ \int_I f'\varphi dx = - \int_I f \varphi' dx $
- Radon-Nikodym derivative: given two measures $\mu, \nu$ (on the same $\sigma-$algebra), if $\nu \ll \mu$ ($\nu$ absoultely continuous w.r.t $\mu$), then there exists a unique $f \in L^1(\mu)$ such that $ \nu(E) = \int_E f d\mu $. Such $f$ is called the Radon-Nikodym derivative of $\nu$ w.r.t $\mu$: $f = \frac{d\nu}{d\mu}$.
- Lebesgue-Stieltjes measure: given a right-continuous, monotone-increasing function $f$, we can define a measure (called the Lebesgue-Stieltjes measure of $f$) $LS_f((a,b]) = f(b) - f(a)$ (and then we have to extend it to all measurable sets as a Radon measure).
My question is: does something like the following hold true?
given $f \in W^{1,1}(I)$ ($f$ Lebesgue integrable, with weak derivative Lebesgue integrable), its weak derivative $f'$ coincides with the Radon-Nikodym derivative of the Lebesgue-Stieltjes measure of $f$ w.r.t. the Lebesgue measure:
$$f' = \frac{d (LS_f)_{ac}}{dx}$$
where $\nu_{ac}$ indicates the absolutely continuous part of $\nu$ w.r.t. the Lebesgue measure.
This seems to me to be true from the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus for $W^{1,1}$, but I have never seen it stated like that.
I would say it looks interesting as a formulation because it would regard the FTC in a more geeral setting.