It was stated at the beginning of my lecture notes that the Taylor expansion of the sine, cosine, and exponential function converge, i. e. we have
$$\sin{x} = \sum_{\nu = 0}^\infty (-1)^\nu \frac{x^{2\nu+1}}{(2\nu+1)!}, \quad \cos{x} = \sum_{\nu = 0}^\infty (-1)^\nu \frac{x^{2\nu}}{(2\nu)!}, \quad \exp{x} = \sum_{\nu = 0}^\infty \frac{x^\nu}{\nu!}$$
for all $x \in \mathbb{R}$.
Then my notes follow up by saying that since these series converge absolutely, then they also converge absolutely for an arbitrary $z \in \mathbb{C}$. Thus the values of
$$\sin{z} := \sum_{\nu = 0}^\infty (-1)^\nu \frac{z^{2\nu+1}}{(2\nu+1)!}, \quad \cos{z} = \sum_{\nu = 0}^\infty (-1)^\nu \frac{z^{2\nu}}{(2\nu)!}, \quad \exp{z} = \sum_{\nu = 0}^\infty \frac{z^\nu}{\nu!},$$
are well-defined.
My question: Why is the part that I highlighted in italics true? Does the argument only work for $\sin, \cos, \exp$ or is there a more general argument?