Since this is a question in Functional Analysis, I will assume that isomorphism means "bicontinuous bijective linear map".
The answer is no in both cases. Not sure what the "simplest example is". The category "topological vector space", without further qualifications, allows for fairly nasty things to happen.
Let $V=L^p[0,1]$, with $0<p<1$. The "$p$-norm" in this case is not a norm, but $V$ is a complete metric topological vector space with the metric
$$
d(f,g)=\int_0^1 |f-g|^p.
$$
It turns out that $V^*=\{0\}$, that is $V$ has no nonzero continuous linear functionals. But $V\oplus\mathbb R$ (you are not saying what topology you consider there, but I will assume that it is the product topology) clearly has the continuous functional $\varphi(f,t)=t$, so its dual is nontrivial. So $V$ and $V\oplus\mathbb R$ cannot be isomorphic as topological vector spaces.
As for Banach spaces $V$ such that $V\not\simeq V\oplus V$, these exist but you will not find them among the classical examples of Banach spaces. Easiest examples (bear in mind that I'm not an expert) seem to be of the form infinite $\ell^2$-sums of spaces $\ell^{n_j}_{p_j}$ (this would be $\mathbb R^{n_j}$ with the $p_j$-norm). There even exists a Banach space that is not isomorphic to any square of any Banach space. The keyword to search for all this stuff is "Banach spaces nonisomorphic to their squares" (this is almost verbatim the title of a paper that has several references).
As far as I can tell, there is no characterization of Banach spaces isomorphic to their squares.