If you want to show that $$p\iff q\iff r,$$ do you then have to show that $p\iff q , p\iff r , q\iff r ?$
1 Answer
Three-statement biconditional
If you want to show that $$p\iff q\iff r,\tag1$$ do you then have to show that $p\iff q , p\iff r , q\iff r ?$
I'm replying tangentially to the intent of your question. Here are three reasonable ways to read sentence $(1),$ with each main connective coloured red: $$(p\iff q)\color\red\iff r\tag A$$ $$p\color\red\iff (q\iff r)\tag B$$ $$(p\iff q)\color\red{\text{ and }}(q\iff r).\tag C$$
Readings A and B are equivalent to each other. However, neither is equivalent to the common mathematics reading, C; you can see this by supposing that $p,q,r$ are all false.
By calling sentence $(1)$ a three-statement conditional, you are almost certainly adopting reading C while observing its consequence that p⟺r
(here, your three statements refer to the two conjuncts of C and p⟺r
); therein lies your answer: to prove that reading C is true does not require proving that the conjunction C itself as well as some consequence of it are true. (After all, surely it is clear that proving C does not require additionally proving its consequence p⟺(q∧r)
either.)
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1
Y implies Z
relationship. Similarly, just because(p⟺q) and (q⟺r)
implies(p⟺q) and (q⟺r) and (p⟺r)
does not in itself mean that the former and latter require the exact same proof. More to the point:(p⟺q) and (q⟺r)
andp⟺q⟺r
require the exact same proof because they are literal translations of each other, and neither requires provingp⟺r
because neither is asserting thatp⟺r
! $\endgroup$