So we know that for a function to be differentiable, the next must limit exists: $$\lim\limits_{h\to 0}f(x)=\frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}$$ Then, $$\lim\limits_{h\to 0}\frac{(x+h)f(x+h)-xf(x)}{h}$$ And we can interpret the factor $(x+h)$ accordingly to the variable of wich the function depends, so $(x+\Delta t)$
Then we have: $$\lim\limits_{\Delta t\to 0}\frac{(x+\Delta t)f(x+\Delta t)-xf(x)}{\Delta t}$$ $$\lim\limits_{\Delta t\to 0}\frac{1}{\Delta t}[(x+\Delta t)f(x+\Delta t)-xf(x)]$$
Now, $$\lim\limits_{\Delta t\to 0}\frac{1}{\Delta t}(\int_a^{(x+\Delta t)}xf(t)dt - \int_a^x xf(t)dt)$$ $$\lim\limits_{\Delta t\to 0}\frac{1}{\Delta t}(\int_x^{x+\Delta t} xf(t)dt)$$
Until know, I think I need to justify why it is possible to let $dt$ transform into $\Delta t$, by the approximation of the integral, with the product $xf(t)\Delta t$, but I'm not quite sure about this. So, is anything wrong with the process until now? My last thought is correct?