I'm working from Rotman's Homological Algebra text. There's just one detail of the Corollary that I don't follow.
1. Yoneda Lemma
Theorem 1.17 (Yoneda Lemma). Let $\mathcal{C}$ be a category, let $A \in \text{obj}(\mathcal{C})$, and let $G : \mathcal{C} \to \mathsf{Sets}$ be a covariant functor. Then there is a bijection
$$y : \text{Nat}(\text{Hom}_\mathcal{C}(A,\square), G) \to G(A)$$
given by $y : \tau \mapsto \tau_A(1_A).$
2. Corollary
Corollary 1.18. Let $\mathcal{C}$ be a category and let $A, B \in \text{obj}(\mathcal{C})$.
(i) If $\tau : \text{Hom}_\mathcal{C}(A,\square) \to \text{Hom}_\mathcal{C}(B,\square)$ is a natural transformation, then for all $C \in \text{obj}(\mathcal{C})$, we have $\tau_C = \psi^*$ where $\psi = \tau_A(1_A) : B \to A$ and $\psi^*$ is the induced map $\text{Hom}_\mathcal{C}(A,C) \to \text{Hom}_\mathcal{C}(B,C)$ given by $\varphi \mapsto \varphi \psi$. Moreover, the morphism $\psi$ is unique: if $\tau_C = \theta^*$, then $\theta = \psi.$
Proof.
(i) If we denote $\tau_A(1_A) \in \text{Hom}_\mathcal{C}(B,A)$ by $\psi$, then the Yoneda Lemma says, for all $C \in \text{obj}(\mathcal{C})$ and all $\varphi \in \text{Hom}_\mathcal{C}(A,C)$, that $\tau_C(\varphi) = \varphi_*(\psi)$. But $\varphi_*(\psi) = \varphi \psi = \psi^*(\varphi)$. The uniqueness assertion follows from injectivity of the Yoneda function $y$
3. Question
I don't see why the uniqueness of $\psi$ follows from the injectivity of $y$. We have $\psi^* = \tau_C = \theta^*$. In other words, for all $\phi \in \text{Hom}(A,C)$, $\phi \psi = \phi \theta$.
We can also say that $\theta^* = y(\tau)^*$. If we knew that $\text{Hom}(A,C)$ contained an injective morphism, the result would certainly follow. What am I missing?