i tried to prove: $$ \dfrac{df(t)}{dx} \cdot g(t)\star f(t) = f(t)\cdot g(t)\star \dfrac{df(t)}{dx} $$ where $\star$ is convolution, $f$ is both a function of $x$ and a function of $t$, and $g$ is just a function of $t$.
I think this equation holds, I tried the following: $$ \begin{align} L.H.S =& \dfrac{df(t)}{dx} \cdot \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} g(\tau)f(t-\tau)d\tau \\ =& \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} g(\tau)f(t-\tau) \dfrac{df(t)}{dx} d\tau \end{align} $$tau and $$ \begin{align} R.H.S =& f(t) \cdot \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} g(\tau)\dfrac{df(t-\tau)}{dx}d\tau \\ =& \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} g(\tau)f(t) \dfrac{df(t-\tau)}{dx} d\tau \end{align} $$ If you use direct variable substitution, that is $t=t-\tau$, then you can prove that the equation is true, but $t$ is not an integral variable. I think this variable substitution cannot be used, but I can't find any other way to prove it.
How should I prove that the equation is true?